General Surgeon Recruitment Exam Question Paper with Answer

General Surgeon Recruitment Exam Question Paper with Answer 2024

Question1:-Cutting of tissues by diathermy makes use of which principle?

        A:-Coagulation

        B:-Denaturation

        C:-Vaporization

        D:-Dehydration

        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question2:-What is the first line diagnostic test for echinococcal liver disease?

        A:-Ultrasonography

        B:-Plain CT

        C:-Contrast Enhanced CT

        D:-MRI + MRCP

        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question3:-Nipple retraction is caused by

        A:-Rotter's muscle

        B:-Sappey's muscle

        C:-Myerholtz muscle

        D:-Cooper's muscle

        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question4:-Which of the following inflammatory mediators is REDUCED in an Acute

injury?

        A:-Interleukin 1

        B:-Cortisol

        C:-Interleukin 6

        D:-Insulin

        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question5:-Which of the following is NOT a pathognomonic feature of mycetoma?

        A:-Subcutaneous mass

        B:-Pain

        C:-Discharge

        D:-Multiple sinuses

        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question6:-A patient presents with discharge from a wound over anterior leg. The

would was sustained during an accident, and has mostly healed except for this

small area. What class does this belong to?

        A:-Class I

        B:-Class II

        C:-Class III

        D:-Class IV

        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question7:-A 34 year old male was brought to casualty with a history of being in a

road traffic accident. He has breathlessness and reduced breath sounds on right

side. An intercostal drain was inserted and 1 litre of blood was drained. He is found

to be in shock and resuscitation is initiated. What class of shock is this patient in?

        A:-Class1

        B:-Class 2

        C:-Class 3

        D:-Class 4

        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question8:-A 50 year old female has been diagnosed with early breast cancer and

is planned to undergo a breast conservation surgery with sentinel lymph node

biopsy under general anaesthesia. What is the most appropriate plan for

preoperative feeding?

        A:-Oral carbohydrate rich feeds upto 4 hours prior to surgery

        B:-Clear fluids orally upto 2 hours prior to surgery

        C:-Clear fluids orally upto 4 hours prior to surgery

        D:-Oral carbohydrate rich feeds upto 2 hours prior to surgery

        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question9:-Which of the following is NOT a feature of severe burns?

        A:-Immunosuppression

        B:-Increased gut mucosal permeability

        C:-Reduced metabolism

        D:-Reduced renal blood flow

        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question10:-Criminal nerve of Grassi is a branch of

        A:-Left anterior vagus

        B:-Left posterior vagus

        C:-Right anterior vagus

        D:-Right posterior vagus

        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question11:-Which of the following diagnostic modalities has the HIGHEST typical

effective dose of ionizing radiation?

        A:-PET CT

        B:-Intravenous Urography

        C:-CT-Kidney, Ureter, Bladder

        D:-Mammography

        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question12:-What test is used to compare two groups in a data which is numerical

and not normally distributed?

        A:-Paired t test

        B:-Unpaired t test

        C:-Chi squared test

        D:-Mann Whitney U test

        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question13:-Which statement is FALSE regarding embryonic stem cells (ESCs)?

        A:-They are pleuripotent

        B:-Cell lines can be derived to model diseases

        C:-Undifferentiated ESCs express major histocompatibility complexes and can

provoke immune response

        D:-Derived from inner cell mass of blastocyst before implantation

        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question14:-Which of the following is TRUE regarding clostridialmyonecrosis?

        A:-Endotoxin produces severe hemolysis

        B:-Absence of soft tissue crepitus excludes the diagnosis

        C:-Causative organisms are Gram negative bacilli

        D:-Kappa toxin causes connective tissue and blood vessel damage

        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question15:-The absolute pressure threshold in compartment syndrome is usually

more than

        A:-15 mmHg

        B:-20 mmHg

        C:-25 mmHg

        D:-30 mmHg

        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question16:-Which of the following inherited syndromes are matched CORRECTLY

with the gene implicated in them?

(i)    Li Fraumeni                                -   p53

(ii)   Familial Adenomatous polyposis -   APC

(iii) Cowden syndrome                       -   PTEN

(iv) MEN 2A                                      -   Menin

        A:-(i), (ii), (iv)

        B:-(i), (ii), (iii), (iv)

        C:-(ii), (iv)

        D:-(i), (ii), (iii)

        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question17:-A 50 year old Diabetic patient presents with complaints of scrotal pain,

discoloration and discharge. On examination, there is extensive tissue necrosis and

patient is febrile. Which organism is most commonly implicated?

        A:-Staphylococcus aureus

        B:-Beta hemolytic streptococcus

        C:-Clostridium

        D:-Proteus mirabilis

        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question18:-Which of the following suture material is absorbed last?

        A:-Silk

        B:-Catgut

        C:-Polydioxanone

        D:-Polyglactin

        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question19:-Which of the following is NOT a typical position of hemorrhoidal

cushions?

        A:-Left lateral

        B:-Left posterior

        C:-Right anterior

        D:-Right posterior

        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question20:-Which of the following immunohistochemical stains is CORRECTLY

matched with its cell of origin?

        A:-CD 31 - Lymphoid

        B:-CD 45 - Vascular

        C:-S 100 - Melanoma

        D:-DOG 1 - Myoid

        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question21:-Chromosomal anomaly in carcinoma in situ of head and neck

squamous cell ca is

        A:-11q, 13q, 14q

        B:-11p, 13q, 14p

        C:-11p, 13p, 14q

        D:-11p, 13p, 14p

        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question22:-All of the following are the aetiological factors of communicating

hydrocephalus EXCEPT

        A:-post hemorrhagic

        B:-CSF infection

        C:-raised CSF protein

        D:-choroid plexus papilloma

        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question23:-Familial carotid body tumour is associated with genetic mutation of

        A:-Lactate dehydrogenase

        B:-Pyruvate dehydrogenase

        C:-Succinate dehydrogenase

        D:-Glutamate dehydrogenase

        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question24:-ECG changes associated with permanent hypo parathyroidism is

        A:-Short QT interval

        B:-Prolonged QT interval

        C:-Prolonged PR interval

        D:-Short PR interval

        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question25:-Common causes of vocal fold palsy are all EXCEPT

        A:-Ca oesophagus

        B:-Aortic aneurysm

        C:-Lower motor neuron disease

        D:-Viral infections

        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question26:-Confirmation test for thyroglossal cyst

        A:-USG

        B:-Raiu

        C:-MIBI Scan

        D:-Technitium 99

        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question27:-Branchial cyst develops from

        A:-Second Branchial arch

        B:-Second Branchial cleft

        C:-Third Branchial cleft

        D:-First Branchial arch

        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question28:-Four legged stool fractures are described with

        A:-Maxilla

        B:-Nasal bone

        C:-Zygoma

        D:-Temporal bone

        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question29:-Pre malignant lesions of the orl cavity with greatest risk for malignant

change

        A:-Leukoplakia

        B:-Erythroplakia

        C:-Proliferative verrucous leukoplakia

        D:-Speckled leukoplakia

        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question30:-Limb salvage is decided by which of the following scoring system

        A:-Mess

        B:-Dash

        C:-Caprini

        D:-Wells

        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question31:-The following are the features of primary hyper parathyroidism EXCEPT

        A:-Osteitis fbrosa cystica

        B:-Brown tumours of long bones

        C:-Salt and pepper skull

        D:-Silver beaten appearance skull

        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question32:-Indications for parathyroidectomy in secondary hyper parathyroidism

(a) Persistently high serum level of intact PTH > 500 pg/mL

(b) Hyperphosphataemia (serum PO4>6 mg/dL) or Hypercalcaemia (Serum Ca>2.5

mmol/L

     or 10 mg/dL) which is refractory to medical management

(c) Estimated volume of the largest gland > 300-500 or long axis > 1 cm

        A:-(a) and (b)

        B:-(b) and (c)

        C:-(a) and (c)

        D:-(a), (b) and (c)

        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question33:-Wrong statement about parathyroid carcinoma is

        A:-Accounts for approximately 10% of all cases of primary hyper

parathyroidism

        B:-A history of previous neck irradiation remains the only known environmental

risk factor

        C:-The tumours remain difficult to diagnose preoperatively as they

biochemically resemble PHPT

        D:-Treatment is focused on controlling hypercalcaemia and removal of the

carcinoma where possible

        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question34:-Most brain tumours will present with one or more features related to

the following triad EXCEPT

        A:-Raised intracranial pressure

        B:-Seizures

        C:-Focal defcit

        D:-Generalised neurological deficit

        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question35:-All of the following are late post operative complications of

tracheostomy EXCEPT

        A:-difficult decanulation

        B:-tracheal stenosis

        C:-tracheo cutaneous fistula

        D:-swallowing difficulty

        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question36:-Ludwig's angina is characterised by

        A:-Brawny swelling of sub mandibular region

        B:-Inflammatory oedema of mouth

        C:-Halitosis

        D:-All of the above

        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question37:-Which of the following is an optional investigation of thyroid

        A:-Corrected serum calcium

        B:-FNAC

        C:-Thyroid auto antibodies

        D:-Serum TSH

        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question38:-Which of the thyroid imaging modality is superior in determining pre

vertebral fascia invasion

        A:-USG

        B:-CT

        C:-MRI

        D:-PET Scan

        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question39:-Which of the following is FALSE about papillary carcinoma thyroid

        A:-most common thyroid malignancy

        B:-papillary microcarcinoma is less than 2 cm in size

        C:-high rate of occult metastasis

        D:-papillary microcarcinomas are common and not associated with adverse

outcomes

        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question40:-Riedel's Thyroiditis

        A:-This is very rare, accounting for 0.5% of all goitres

        B:-Thyroid tissue is replaced by cellular fibrous tissue, which infltrates through

the capsule into muscles and adjacent structures, including parathyroids, recurrent

nerves and the carotid sheath

        C:-It may occur in association with retroperitoneal and mediastinal fibrosis

        D:-All of the above

        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question41:-Which of the following molecularly targeted therapies has meaningful

clinical activity in advanced thymoma

        A:-Imetinib-a c-kit inhibitor

        B:-Octreotide - a somatostatin analogue

        C:-Erlotinib - an EGFR inhibitor

        D:-Sorafenib - a multi-targeted kinase inhibitor

        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question42:-BRCA-1 associated breast cancer are characterized by

        A:-ER positive

        B:-Good prognosis

        C:-Younger age of presentation

        D:-All of the above

        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question43:-Both arterial and venous thrombosis occurs in

        A:-Antiphospholipid antibodies

        B:-Antithrombin 111 deficiency

        C:-Protein C deficiency

        D:-Mutation in factor V gene

        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question44:-After doing a graft repair of a thoraco abdominal aneurysm, the patient

developed weakness. The most probable cause for this is

        A:-Decreased blood supply to the lower limb

        B:-Thoraco splanchnic injury

        C:-Discontinuation of arteria radicularis magna

        D:-Lumbosacral nerve injury

        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question45:-Olivers sign is seen in

        A:-Ascending aortic aneurysm

        B:-Aortic arch aneurysm

        C:-Descending aortic aneurysm

        D:-Aortic dissection

        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question46:-The artery commonly involved in cirsoid aneurysm

        A:-Occipital

        B:-Internal carotid

        C:-External carotid

        D:-Superficial temporal

        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question47:-TRIVEX is a percutaneous technique of

        A:-Intravenous intraluminal destruction of vein by ablation catheter

        B:-Intavenous intraluminal injection of scleroscant like sodium tetradecyl

sulphate

        C:-Removal of vein by suction following injection of fluid

        D:-Stripping of vein

        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question48:-Popcorn type of Reed Sternberg cell is seen in the following type of

Hodgkins lymphoma

        A:-Lymphocyte predominance

        B:-Mixed cellularity

        C:-Lymphocyte depletion

        D:-Nodular sclerosis

        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question49:-In Neibulowitz surgery - what is done

        A:-Skin bridge

        B:-Omental pedicle

        C:-Ileal mucosal patch

        D:-Lymph node with vein anastomosis

        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question50:-Which of the following is a cause of unilateral hyperluscent lung on

chest radiograph

        A:-Asthma

        B:-Poland syndrome

        C:-Bronchitis

        D:-Pleural effusion

        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question51:-Left sided massive pneumothorax ECG shows all except

        A:-Left axis deviation

        B:-Absent R wave

        C:-Peaked P wave

        D:-T wave inversion

        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question52:-Hamman's sign is seen in

        A:-Diaphragmatic paralysis

        B:-Empyema thoracis

        C:-Pneumo mediastinum

        D:-Sub phrenic abscess

        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question53:-Resting intra pleural pressure

        A:--5 to -10 mm

        B:--2 to -6 mm

        C:-+5 to +10 mm

        D:--10 to 10 mm

        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question54:-Which of the following is considered as having better progress in a lady

presenting with breast lump in the lower outer quadrant of the breast with axillary

node involvement and diagnosed as invasive breast cancer

        A:-over expression of HER 2 neu gene

        B:-High mitotic index

        C:-Axillary lymph node involvement

        D:-Mucinous or colloid breast cancer

        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question55:-BRCA 1 gene is located in

        A:-Chromosome 13

        B:-Chromosome 12

        C:-Chromosome 11

        D:-Chromosome 17

        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question56:-Kussmaul's sign is the characteristic sign seen in

        A:-Atrial myxoma

        B:-Acute pneumothorax

        C:-Acute myocardial infarction

        D:-Pericardial effusion

        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question57:-The following conditions are contra indication of thrombolytic therapy

in acute limb ischemia except

        A:-Anaemia

        B:-Bleeding diathesis

        C:-Recent stroke

        D:-Pregnancy

        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question58:-Had field's operation is indicated in

        A:-Galocetocele

        B:-Duct etasia

        C:-Breast cyst

        D:-Fibroadinosis

        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question59:-Critical limb ischemia of the limb consists of the following conditions

EXCEPT

        A:-Ulcer at the tip of the toe

        B:-Ankle systolic pressure less than 50 mm of Hg

        C:-Parasthesia for more than two weeks

        D:-Pain on the limb for more than two weeks even after taking regular

analgesic treatment

        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question60:-Which of the following is true about Mesothelioma

        A:-Pleural effusion is exudative

        B:-Butchart staging is used

        C:-Manganese exposure is a pre disposing factor

        D:-Cough and dyspnea are common symptoms

        Correct Answer:-Question Cancelled

Question61:-Which of the following is a false statement about hernia?

        A:-A swelling with cough impulse is not necessarily a hernia

        B:-A swelling with no cough impulse may still be a hernia

        C:-Reduction of hernia content is not essential for successful repair

        D:-Excision and closure of hernial sac are ideal but not essential

        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question62:-According to the European Hernia Society a primary, indirect inguinal

hernia with a defect of 3 cm size would be expressed as

        A:-PL2

        B:-PL3

        C:-PM2

        D:-PM3

        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question63:-Most common site of subphrenic abscess is?

        A:-Left subphrenic space

        B:-Right subphrenic space

        C:-Lesser sac

        D:-Right subhepatic space

        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question64:-All of the following are true regarding Lower Oesophageal Sphincter

(LOS) EXCEPT?

        A:-It is a zone of relatively high pressure in the Oesophagus

        B:-The normal LOS pressure is 10-25 mm of Hg

        C:-It opens in response to primary peristaltic waves

        D:-It will not allow air to escape from stomach

        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question65:-All of the following are factors that favour nonsurgical management in

a case of oesophageal perforation EXCEPT?

        A:-Minimal cardiovascular upset

        B:-Perforation of abdominal oesophagus

        C:-Perforation of cervical oesophagus

        D:-Perforation by flexible endoscope

        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question66:-Which one of the following is the 'gold standard' for the diagnosis of

Gastro-Oesophageal Reflux Disease?

        A:-Endoscopy

        B:-Oesophageal manometry

        C:-24 hour oesophageal pH recording

        D:-CT-scan

        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question67:-The best treatment option for biliary reflux gastritis following Billroth I

and Billroth II gastrectomy is

        A:-Conservative management

        B:-Total gastrectomy

        C:-Roux en Y gastrojejunostomy

        D:-Jejunojejunostomy

        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question68:-H.pylori is a known cause of peptic ulceration. Which of the following

statement is not true regarding it?

        A:-Normal duodenal mucosa can be infected by H.Pylori

        B:-It can cause duodenal ulceration

        C:-It is associated with chronic type B gastritis

        D:-It is a gram-negative microaerophilic bacteria

        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question69:-Which of the following is true about Gastro Intestinal Stromal Tumors

(GIST)?

        A:-80% will be found in the stomach

        B:-Tumors of endodermal origin

        C:-Spread to lymph node is extremely rare

        D:-Most common presentation is gastric outlet obstruction

        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question70:-Management of bleeding oesophageal varices include all of the

following EXCEPT?

        A:-Proton pump inhibitors

        B:-Ballon tamponade

        C:-Terlipressin

        D:-Endoscopic sclerotherapy

        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question71:-Preoperative imaging for Hepatocellular carcinoma includes?

        A:-Tripple phase CT chest

        B:-Tripple phase CT abdomen and Pelvis

        C:-MRI of the Liver

        D:-All of the above

        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question72:-When a patient is posted for open cholecystectomy for cholelithiasis,

what are the indications for Choledochotomy?

(i) Palpable bile duct stone

(ii) Dilated CBD

(iii) Jaundice or history of Jaundice

        A:-(i) and (ii)

        B:-(ii) and (iii)

        C:-(i) and (iii)

        D:-(i), (ii) and (iii)

        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question73:-A 40 years old female underwent laparoscopic cholecystectomy.

Unfortunately, she developed persistent biliary discharge from the drain

postoperative period. Management of this patient consist of

(i)    ERCP stenting

(ii)   MRCP

(iii) Drain removal

        A:-(i) and (ii)

        B:-(ii) and (iii)

        C:-(i) and (iii)

        D:-None of the above

        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question74:-All of the following are causes of raised serum amylase level EXCEPT?

        A:-Mesenteric infarction

        B:-Acute appendicitis

        C:-Ectopic pregnancy

        D:-Sialadenitis

        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question75:-All of the following are true about pseudocyst of pancreas EXCEPT?

        A:-It has a well-defined wall lined by epithelium

        B:-Cyst fluid is rich in amylase

        C:-It lies outside the pancreas

        D:-Resolves spontaneously in most of the cases

        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question76:-Regarding colorectal anastomosis which of the following is true?

        A:-Stapler anastomosis is definitely better than hand sewn anastomosis

        B:-In hand sewn anastomosis double layer closure is better than single layer

        C:-Monofilament suture has lower leak rate than other sutures

        D:-None of the above is correct

        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question77:-In Familial Adenomatous Polyposis which of the following is not an

extracolonic manifestation?

        A:-Brain tumors

        B:-Hepatoblastoma

        C:-Acinic cell tumor of salivary gland

        D:-Desmoid tumor

        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question78:-Alvarado score is used in the diagnosis of

        A:-Acute pancreatitis

        B:-Acute appendicitis

        C:-Acute cholecystitis

        D:-Crohn's disease

        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question79:-Which of the following is false regarding fissure in ano?

        A:-Ischemic ulcer in the midline of anal canal

        B:-Anterior anal fissure is more common in women

        C:-Forceful anal sphincter dilatation is the treatment of choice

        D:-Most common symptoms are pain and bleeding on defecation

        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question80:-All of the following are true about Acute intussusception EXCEPT

        A:-Peak incidence 5 to 10 months of age

        B:-The sheath or outer tube is called intussusceptum

        C:-In adult colocolic intussusception is common

        D:-On CT scanning target sign may be present

        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question81:-Which one of the following is a contraindication for intravenous

pyelography (IVP)?

        A:-Horseshoe kidney

        B:-Staghorn calculi

        C:-Tuberculosis of the kidney

        D:-Multiple myeloma

        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question82:-Which one of the following advises is not given to a patient presented

with recurrent renal stone?

        A:-Increase water intake

        B:-Restricted intake of protein

        C:-Restricted calcium intake

        D:-Restriction of salt

        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question83:-Which type of renal cell carcinoma histopathologically shows

'perinuclear halo' and 'plant like' appearance?

        A:-Papillary carcinoma

        B:-Clear cell carcinoma

        C:-Collecting duct carcinoma

        D:-Chromophobe cell carcinoma

        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question84:-Which hypernephromas are diagnosed by urinary exfoliative cytology?

        A:-Transitional cell carcinoma

        B:-Clear cell carcinoma

        C:-Adeno carcinoma

        D:-Oncocytoma

        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question85:-All the following are true regarding childhood polycystic kidney

disease, EXCEPT

        A:-Pulmonary hypoplasia may be seen

        B:-Autosomal dominant

        C:-Congenital hepatic fibrosis may be seen

        D:-Associated congenital renal cysts

        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question86:-Investigation of choice for vesicoureteric reflux is

        A:-Intravenous pyelogram

        B:-Cystography

        C:-Micturating cystourethrogram

        D:-Radionuclide study

        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question87:-Which one of the following is not true about ectopia vesicae?

        A:-Peyronie's disease

        B:-Carcinoma bladder may occur

        C:-Urinary incontinence

        D:-Ureterovesical reflux

        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question88:-Which statement is correct about transitional cell carcinoma of

bladder?

        A:-Fundus is the commonest site

        B:-Industrial carcinogens predisposes

        C:-Muscle layer invasion is associated with good prognosis

        D:-Most carcinomas are flat, solid and infiltrating types

        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question89:-Most common site of development of carcinoma of prostate is

        A:-Peripheral zone

        B:-Central zone

        C:-Transitional zone

        D:-Fibromuscular stroma

        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question90:-72 year-old gentleman came to the casualty with urinary retention and

significant back pain. Which one of the investigation is performed?

        A:-Serum calcium

        B:-Serum phosphates

        C:-Serum electrophoresis

        D:-Serum acid phosphatase

        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question91:-Which one of the following is true about obstructive azoospermia?

        A:-FSH and LH increased

        B:-Increased LH and normal FSH

        C:-Normal FSH and LH

        D:-Increased FSH and normal LH

        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question92:-Usual composition of prostatic calculi is

        A:-Calcium oxalate

        B:-Uric acid

        C:-Calcium phosphate

        D:-Struvite

        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question93:-All are true about hypospadias except,

        A:-Circumcision in infancy is contraindicated

        B:-Avoid surgery till puberty

        C:-Glandular type needs no treatment

        D:-Associated with chordee

        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question94:-For collecting urine specimen, most reliable method is

        A:-Urethral catheterization

        B:-Midstream voiding

        C:-Catheter aspiration

        D:-Suprapubic aspiration

        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question95:-Which one of the following investigation is not opted in a case of

urethral structure?

        A:-MRI

        B:-Retrograde urethrogram

        C:-Micturating cystourethrogram

        D:-High frequency ultrasound

        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question96:-Commonest cause of mortality in a case of carcinoma penis is

        A:-Uremia

        B:-Urinary sepsis

        C:-Hemorrhage

        D:-Lung metastases

        Correct Answer:- Option-C

General Surgeon Recruitment Exam Question Paper with Answer


Question97:-Which one of the following statement is true about undescended

testis?

        A:-Usually descends spontaneously at puberty

        B:-Orchidopexy done at puberty

        C:-Normal sperm production maintained

        D:-Incidence of malignancy is higher

        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question98:-Renal cell carcinoma can predispose to cause varicocele. Which

statement is true?

        A:-More on right side

        B:-Cough impulse is positive

        C:-Does not decompress in supine position

        D:-Indicates fourth stage of the disease

        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question99:-Testicular dermoid arises from _______ ?

        A:-Totipotent cell

        B:-Pluripotent cells

        C:-Mesoderm

        D:-Ectoderm

        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question100:-Which one of the following is not correct regarding seminoma testis?

        A:-Common in age between 30 and 45

        B:-Radioresistant

        C:-Lymphatic spread is common

        D:-Not seen before puberty

        Correct Answer:- Option-B

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